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Here's one that has me stumped...?
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Here's one that has me stumped...?

How can a person who was found not guilty of a crime be sued for the same crime in civil court? Example, O.J. Simpson was found not guilty for the murders of his wife Nicole Brown-Simpson and her friend Ronald Goldman, but Goldman's family took Simpson to civil court and won. I don't get it. Insight, please. Thanks


    




lawrenceba549
Different standards of proof.
To be found guilty in a criminal trial requires a case beyond reasonable doubt. A civil case only needs to show that is is likely that what is being claimed happened by a preponderance of evidence.


J P
Rating
Two separate actions. Double jeopardy only applies to criminal offenses, but the same incident might also be a civil wrong against someone, as in the case of OJ. Remember, the jury in a Criminal trial does not find a defendant "innocent" of the crime, they only find that they were not proved guilty of a criminal offense beyond a reasonable doubt. But, the standard of proof in civil court is much lower. So he can be not guilty of a criminal offense, but still found liable, by a preponderance of the evidence, in civil court.


sultan of meatloaf
Rating
I believe it's based on the notion that he was the only suspect that would have committed the crime....I read up on it at wiki awhile ago, so if you feel obliged, take a look at that for a broader answer





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