Is my wife entitled to my house even though I bought it before we got married?

janefairy	it depends why you split up .did you cheat .did she or did you just fall out of love.if you did cheat then i think she should get the house cos you did wrong.if she did then you should get the house .and if you just both fell out off love then she should let you have the house and walk away.cos she aint put nothing in to it

JOJO	if she has,nt contributed to the house then no, check it out in a phone call to a solicitor.

cinders	I dont know wether she is but you sound horrible and she stayed married to you so I think she has earned her right to half of everything you have so there!!!!!!!

Becky H	no in sc

Kitty	No, she is not entitled to half, but she's entitled to something. Check your state laws - better yet, contact a divorce attorney. At the very least, you could pay a couple of hundred bucks for a consultation and find out what your options are. P.S. We spoke to an attorney about these issues before we got married; the answer was, it is not "community property" unless it was bought AFTER marriage - however, the spouse in entitled to some compensation, and this compensation is determined by the state laws. One thing I can tell you, she cannot take "half" of what you owned before marriage; it's not that cut-and-dry. See an attorney.

mark.boulton6@btinternet.com	yes of course she is .........who ever said no wants their heads examined..!!!

tressroy	Do you have kids if this is the case yes... No court in the land will allow you to put your wife and your kids out. However if there are not children you may be asked to buy her out or sell it to pay of marital debt there are so many options regarding this according to your state. How long have you been married stuff like that. When I got divorce my husband had a Sears card that he had years before I was married to him. I never used the card or even knew he had it.... I never shopped at sears anywho... It should up on my credit report! I was told once you are married everything is shared but I was able to fight it! If you can fight it try it! She may want to be bought out to prove she is suffering of some sort and you have to see about her the law wont allow you to just put her out unless she leaves for 6 mos or more in some states.

justbnme	If you bought the house before you were married, and she has never taken up residence there, then I say she's not entitled. What's usually divided are things you shared. So if it was purchased by you (her name is not on the property), and she never lived there (so you're not taking away her home or affecting her lifestyle), then I'd say she can't touch it. Now, if something happened and for some strange reason you "owe" her a boatload of money, then the judge may order you to sell the property to pay off that debt to her, but other than that I can't see her being entitled.

theartisttwin	In most states a wife is not entitled to property bought before the marriage. If you sell the house however, and put that money towards a new house....she is entitled to half. My suggestion, if you are very worried about the if's of splitting up, get into counseling NOW or if you are not married yet, do not do so until you are sure.

Ghanaian Princess	not if you don't have children together

Miss Terry	kill her you'll be out in 5

Pyria	If she didn't sign a pre-nup then yes, of course you can always buy out her half of the house

loulu	If you can prove that she made no financial contribution to the home, and her name is not on any documentation I see no reason why she would be entitled to any it.

Emmit B	That since you bought it before you were married is not considered community property .

splatweasle	I would say yes. Because women always gain in divorce. If it were her house I doubt you would get a share of it!

blondie x	This is something that confuses me as it seems so simple yet no one realises!! It is YOUR house. You paid for it and if she made no contribution why does she end up getting half if not more!!! It makes no sense to me. Put your mind at ease that it is fully your property and whatever she put in, whether it be a telephone or sofa, you give back. But as you both lived there together she should have contributed to the bills and if she didn't she has no right to even argue for half of everything you have. Unfortunately the law doesn't see it this way...

stormwarnfm	I would like to say no, but I cannot say it with 100% accuracy. If her name is not on it, I would think she would have no grounds to make any sort of "ownership claim" to it, but if you and her have a child, she may try to say the child has rights to it, and get it, or 1/2 it's value, that way.

Tom B	unless you signed a prenup you better have a great lawer.

midnite_thundar	"and has never resided at the address" I think if you are married and she isn't living with you, you have other issues to worry about. (unless she is currently deployed as a member of the armed services)

Tiare	it may depend on the state you live in, but in most situations like this, she is entitled to half of the equity that has accrued since you have been married. I does not matter that she has not contributed financially, you are legally married, it is marital property.

inmate3685	no she isn't. That since you bought it before you were married is not considered community property

John K	That will depend on the law where you live. Generally she will get nothing if there was no mortage on it. But, if earnings during a marriage were used to pay down mortagage, improve house, etc. she may have some claim to a bit of equity in the house. Consult a lawyer.

rebel	sorry jon but you are on a loser,i know its not fair,but what is in this life.

James J	Nope. As long as you bought it before you met, she isn't entitled to it, as long as you don't sign her name to anything.

Cutie Pie	It is community property!!! Welcome to marriage!